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Instinctively, I just can't let go of the idea that uvulars in PIE Proto-Indo-European were born at some point out of allophones of velars and that this allophony was initially triggered by neighbouring vowels.
I admit I've backed myself up against a wall here because I still have to look into these uvulars i.e. the *g in *mesg-, *yeug-, etc that appear in places that I wouldn't expect based on my theories of Syncope and Mid IE velar/uvular allophony.
Why isn't *m-/*b- alternation in the 1ps pronoun recognized for what it is: regular nasal allophony in initial position in certain environments?
Even allophones are found in (western) music: The so called melodic minor scale uses semitone changes depending on ascending or descending melodies, thus being an example for context sensitive allophony.
2. Etruscan pairs like pulumχva/fulumχva prove allophony.
4. Instances of Etr f not from allophony are demonstrably recent loans
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